Cardiovascular examination Part 1
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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on cardiovascular examination suitable for those people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those who want to refine their clinical skills. The questions are derived from content on the Cardiovascular examination and Cardiac auscultation pages, so revision of these pages prior to taking this quiz is recommended,
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The JVP height when sitting up at 45 degrees is measured from above the
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
A loud second heart sound can be caused by which one of the following
Correct
Calcification of aortic valve and aortic regurgitation cause a soft second heart sound. RBBB causes splitting of the first heart sound. (link)
Incorrect
Calcification of aortic valve and aortic regurgitation cause a soft second heart sound. RBBB causes splitting of the first heart sound. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
The normal JVP height when sitting up at 45 degrees is
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
In the sitting position with the head turned slightly away from the examiner, the normal JVP is best visualised
Correct
In the sitting position with the head turned slightly away from the examiner, the normal JVP is best visualised medial to the clavicular head of the sternocleidomastoid. (link)
Incorrect
In the sitting position with the head turned slightly away from the examiner, the normal JVP is best visualised medial to the clavicular head of the sternocleidomastoid. (link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The accuracy of measuring the JVP within 2cm of its actual value by clinical examination is approximately
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
The specificity of the presence of a visible venous column above the clavicle in a patient sitting upright for an elevated JVP is approximately
Correct
The specificity of the presence of a visible venous column above the clavicle in a patient sitting upright is approximately 85% and about 65% sensitive. (link)
Incorrect
The specificity of the presence of a visible venous column above the clavicle in a patient sitting upright is approximately 85% and about 65% sensitive. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
The feature of the JVP that helps to differentiate it from carotid pulsation includes all of the following except
Correct
Feature of the JVP that help to differentiate it from carotid pulsation includes;the venous pulse is not usually palpable; pressure over the base of the vein or over the liver (hepatojugular reflex) makes the vein more prominent; the venous pulse alters with changes in posture; the venous pulse usually decreases with inspiration; the venous pulse has a double impulse for each arterial pulsation; the venous pulsation is prominent during diastole and the vein fills from above. (link)
Incorrect
Feature of the JVP that help to differentiate it from carotid pulsation includes;the venous pulse is not usually palpable; pressure over the base of the vein or over the liver (hepatojugular reflex) makes the vein more prominent; the venous pulse alters with changes in posture; the venous pulse usually decreases with inspiration; the venous pulse has a double impulse for each arterial pulsation; the venous pulsation is prominent during diastole and the vein fills from above. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Causes of an elevated JVP with a normal waveform include all of the following except
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Causes of a very large a wave in the JVP include all of the following except
Correct
Tricuspid regurgitation causes a combined c-v wave as the R atrial pressure is elevated throughout ventricular systole and is visible during all of systole. (link)
Incorrect
Tricuspid regurgitation causes a combined c-v wave as the R atrial pressure is elevated throughout ventricular systole and is visible during all of systole. (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the apex beat is incorrect?
Correct
Pure concentric LV hypertrophy (as occurs in pure aortic stenosis) does not cause an increase in the external LV diameter until the AS becomes severe, so does not displace the apex beat in most cases. Displacement of the apex beat is 75% sensitive and 70% specific for cardiomegaly. (link)
Incorrect
Pure concentric LV hypertrophy (as occurs in pure aortic stenosis) does not cause an increase in the external LV diameter until the AS becomes severe, so does not displace the apex beat in most cases. Displacement of the apex beat is 75% sensitive and 70% specific for cardiomegaly. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following cardiac lesions is most likely to produce a murmur detectable on clinical examination?
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
A loud first heart sound may be due to all of the following except
Correct
A prolonged diastolic filling time (e.g.,1st degree HB), delayed ventricular systole (e.g., LBBB) or mitral regurgitation cause a soft first heart sound.
Incorrect
A prolonged diastolic filling time (e.g.,1st degree HB), delayed ventricular systole (e.g., LBBB) or mitral regurgitation cause a soft first heart sound.
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
A third heart sound characteristically
Correct
A 3rd heart sound is low pitched, early to mid diastolic and is caused by tautening of the mitral and tricuspid papillary muscles at the end of rapid diastolic filling. It is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope and a RVH H2 is best heard over the left sternal edge. I has a cadence similar to ‘Kentucky’ and may be physiological in children and young adults. (link)
Incorrect
A 3rd heart sound is low pitched, early to mid diastolic and is caused by tautening of the mitral and tricuspid papillary muscles at the end of rapid diastolic filling. It is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope and a RVH H2 is best heard over the left sternal edge. I has a cadence similar to ‘Kentucky’ and may be physiological in children and young adults. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
A third heart sound
Correct
The 3rd heart sound is only about 25% sensitive, but 95% specific, for LVF. It has a cadence like ‘Kentucky’ (Tennessee is the cadence of the 4th heart sound) and is caused by tautening of the mitral and tricuspid papillary muscles. Apart from LVF it is caused by aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, VSD or patent ductus arteriosus. Hypertension causes a 4th heart sound. (link)
Incorrect
The 3rd heart sound is only about 25% sensitive, but 95% specific, for LVF. It has a cadence like ‘Kentucky’ (Tennessee is the cadence of the 4th heart sound) and is caused by tautening of the mitral and tricuspid papillary muscles. Apart from LVF it is caused by aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, VSD or patent ductus arteriosus. Hypertension causes a 4th heart sound. (link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
The fourth heart sound is
Correct
The 4th heart sound is higher pitched than a 3rd heart sound, but still best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. It occurs in late diastole and has a cadence similar to ‘Tennessee’ . It is caused by a reflected high pressure atrial wave from a poorly compliant ventricle and is never physiological. It is absent in atrial fibrillation, as there is no atrial contraction. (link)
Incorrect
The 4th heart sound is higher pitched than a 3rd heart sound, but still best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. It occurs in late diastole and has a cadence similar to ‘Tennessee’ . It is caused by a reflected high pressure atrial wave from a poorly compliant ventricle and is never physiological. It is absent in atrial fibrillation, as there is no atrial contraction. (link)
Cardiovascular examination Part 2
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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on cardiovascular examination suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or others who are interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions are derived from the content of the Cardiac auscultation and Aortic valve disease pages, so revision of these pages prior to taking this quiz is recommended.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
A left ventricular fourth heart sound is
Correct
If originating from the LV, the 4th heart sound is best heard over apex with patient in the left lateral position and is softer during inspiration. When originating from the RV it is best heard over left lower sternal border and is louder during inspiration. Although higher pitched than a 3rd heart sound, it is still best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. (link)
Incorrect
If originating from the LV, the 4th heart sound is best heard over apex with patient in the left lateral position and is softer during inspiration. When originating from the RV it is best heard over left lower sternal border and is louder during inspiration. Although higher pitched than a 3rd heart sound, it is still best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. (link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
Causes of a fourth heart sound include all of the following except
Correct
A VSD causes a 3rd heart sound. Acute mitral regurgitation can cause a 4th heart sound, but chronic MR causes a 3rd heart sound, Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension can also cause a 4th heart sound.(link)
Incorrect
A VSD causes a 3rd heart sound. Acute mitral regurgitation can cause a 4th heart sound, but chronic MR causes a 3rd heart sound, Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension can also cause a 4th heart sound.(link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding additional heart sounds is incorrect
Correct
Ejection clicks are the most common early systolic sounds and are due to abrupt halting of the semilunar valves. An aortic ejection click is a loud high frequency sound associated with aortic stenosis due to a bicuspid aortic valve, but not usually with calcific aortic stenosis. It does not vary with respiration and is best heard at the apex. An opening snap is a high pitched early diastolic sound associated with mitral stenosis. It is best heard between the apex and the left lower sternal border with the patient in the left lateral position and is softer in inspiration. (link)
Incorrect
Ejection clicks are the most common early systolic sounds and are due to abrupt halting of the semilunar valves. An aortic ejection click is a loud high frequency sound associated with aortic stenosis due to a bicuspid aortic valve, but not usually with calcific aortic stenosis. It does not vary with respiration and is best heard at the apex. An opening snap is a high pitched early diastolic sound associated with mitral stenosis. It is best heard between the apex and the left lower sternal border with the patient in the left lateral position and is softer in inspiration. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
The intensity of an obvious murmur with a palpable thrill would be
Correct
A Grade 1 murmur is just audible with a good stethoscope in a quiet room. Grade 2 is soft but readily audible with a stethoscope. Grade 3 is easily heard with a stethoscope. Grade 4 is an obvious murmur with a palpable thrill. Grade 5 is very loud, heard not only over the precordium but elsewhere in the body. Grade 6 can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest ( i.e. just possibly audible with a stethoscope in a busy ED!). (link)
Incorrect
A Grade 1 murmur is just audible with a good stethoscope in a quiet room. Grade 2 is soft but readily audible with a stethoscope. Grade 3 is easily heard with a stethoscope. Grade 4 is an obvious murmur with a palpable thrill. Grade 5 is very loud, heard not only over the precordium but elsewhere in the body. Grade 6 can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest ( i.e. just possibly audible with a stethoscope in a busy ED!). (link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
Which one of the following matches regarding the timing of murmurs is incorrect
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following matches regarding the timing of murmurs is incorrect
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following manoeuvres would be least likely to increase the intensity of the murmur described?
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Which of the following statements regarding aortic stenosis is not correct
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The most common cause of isolated aortic valve disease in people < 60 years of age in Australia is
Correct
The most common cause of isolated aortic valve disease in younger people in Australia is aortic stenosis. The most common cause of AS in this population is a congenital bicuspid valve, which accounts for about 60% of cases. It has a 1 – 2% prevalence in the general population, is more common in males and is associated with aortic dissection. Degenerative calcific aortic tricuspid valve is the next most common in this age group (and most common in people > 70 years of age, and increasing in frequency as the population ages). Rheumatic heart disease is the third most common cause (and decreasing in frequency), is associated with AR and nearly all cases also have mitral valve disease. Coarctation of the aorta is the least likely cause. (link)
Incorrect
The most common cause of isolated aortic valve disease in younger people in Australia is aortic stenosis. The most common cause of AS in this population is a congenital bicuspid valve, which accounts for about 60% of cases. It has a 1 – 2% prevalence in the general population, is more common in males and is associated with aortic dissection. Degenerative calcific aortic tricuspid valve is the next most common in this age group (and most common in people > 70 years of age, and increasing in frequency as the population ages). Rheumatic heart disease is the third most common cause (and decreasing in frequency), is associated with AR and nearly all cases also have mitral valve disease. Coarctation of the aorta is the least likely cause. (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
The most specific feature of aortic stenosis is
Correct
A slow upstroke or plateau pulse has a LR + of 8.
BP changes are unreliable in the elderly so the pulse pressure may be normal or minimally reduced even in severe AS.
a prominent a wave and RVF due to septal hypertrophy (Berheim effect) can be caused by AS, however other causes of a prominent a wave (e.g. TR) make this a less specific sign. A soft H2 has a LR+ for AS of 3.1 and is less specific than a slow upstroke or plateau. (link)Incorrect
A slow upstroke or plateau pulse has a LR + of 8.
BP changes are unreliable in the elderly so the pulse pressure may be normal or minimally reduced even in severe AS.
a prominent a wave and RVF due to septal hypertrophy (Berheim effect) can be caused by AS, however other causes of a prominent a wave (e.g. TR) make this a less specific sign. A soft H2 has a LR+ for AS of 3.1 and is less specific than a slow upstroke or plateau. (link) -
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Features that suggest severe AS include all of the following except
Correct
The murmur of AS may be soft in severe disease due to LV dysfunction. Radiation of the murmur to the neck is not considered a sign of more severe AS. (link)
Incorrect
The murmur of AS may be soft in severe disease due to LV dysfunction. Radiation of the murmur to the neck is not considered a sign of more severe AS. (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
The feature of aortic sclerosis least helpful in differentiating it from aortic stenosis is
Correct
Aortic sclerosis is at least as common as aortic stenosis in older patients and has a systolic murmur similar to aortic stenosis, except that it peaks in early, rather than late, systole. There is no reduction in pulse pressure, the pulse volume and form is normal and there is no single or reversely split H2 as can occur in aortic stenosis. Radiation to the neck can occur in either aortic sclerosis or stenosis.(link)
Incorrect
Aortic sclerosis is at least as common as aortic stenosis in older patients and has a systolic murmur similar to aortic stenosis, except that it peaks in early, rather than late, systole. There is no reduction in pulse pressure, the pulse volume and form is normal and there is no single or reversely split H2 as can occur in aortic stenosis. Radiation to the neck can occur in either aortic sclerosis or stenosis.(link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following peripheral signs of aortic regurgitation is incorrectly matched?
Correct
Duroziez’s sign is systolic and diastolic murmurs over the partly occluded femorals. A water hammer pulse is another peripheral sign of AR. (link)
Incorrect
Duroziez’s sign is systolic and diastolic murmurs over the partly occluded femorals. A water hammer pulse is another peripheral sign of AR. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
The commonest cause of aortic regurgitation in Australia of the following is
Correct
Another common cause is a bicuspid aortic valve and hypertension in older people. Other uncommon causes include aortic dissection, Marfan’s syndrome, VSD and tertiary syphilis. (link)
Incorrect
Another common cause is a bicuspid aortic valve and hypertension in older people. Other uncommon causes include aortic dissection, Marfan’s syndrome, VSD and tertiary syphilis. (link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Clinical examination for moderate or severe aortic regurgitation is approximately
Correct
Examination is about 75% sensitive and 90% specific – so if you hear the typical murmur, the patient very likely has AR. Examination is only 25% sensitive for mild AR as the early diastolic murmur may not be heard unless the patient is sat up and auscultation occurs in full expiration.(link)
Incorrect
Examination is about 75% sensitive and 90% specific – so if you hear the typical murmur, the patient very likely has AR. Examination is only 25% sensitive for mild AR as the early diastolic murmur may not be heard unless the patient is sat up and auscultation occurs in full expiration.(link)
Cardiovascular examination Part 3
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This is a 15 MCQ quiz on cardiovascular examination suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in improving their clinical skills. The questions relate to the content of the Other valve lesions, and Cardiac murmur differentiation pages, so reviewing these pages before taking this quiz is recommended.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Features of more severe mitral stenosis include all the following except
Correct
The first heart sound is usually loud in MS and is not considered as a sign of severity. More severe disease also has pulmonary hypertension, and atrial fibrillation is common in many cases of even mild-moderate disease. (link)
Incorrect
The first heart sound is usually loud in MS and is not considered as a sign of severity. More severe disease also has pulmonary hypertension, and atrial fibrillation is common in many cases of even mild-moderate disease. (link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The most common cause of functional mitral stenosis in Australia is
Correct
Rheumatic heart disease is by far the most common cause of MS in Australia. Congenital MS is rare, as is aortic regurgitation severe enough to impair mitral valve function and cause an Austin-Flint murmur. Calcific, degenerative disease affects the aortic valve, but not the mitral valve significantly. (link)
Incorrect
Rheumatic heart disease is by far the most common cause of MS in Australia. Congenital MS is rare, as is aortic regurgitation severe enough to impair mitral valve function and cause an Austin-Flint murmur. Calcific, degenerative disease affects the aortic valve, but not the mitral valve significantly. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
The most common cause of mitral regurgitation in the general Australian population is
Correct
Other chronic causes include LVF, congenital endocardial cushion defects and radiotherapy. Acute causes are less common but include infective endocarditis, papillary muscle rupture and (very rarely) trauma. (link)
Incorrect
Other chronic causes include LVF, congenital endocardial cushion defects and radiotherapy. Acute causes are less common but include infective endocarditis, papillary muscle rupture and (very rarely) trauma. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
The sensitivity of clinical examination for mitral regurgitation of moderate or greater severity is approximately
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The examination feature least likely to help differentiate mitral valve prolapse from mitral regurgitation due to a cardiomyopathy is
Correct
MVP (and papillary muscle dysfunction) usually has a normal first heart sound, whereas other causes usually cause a soft H1.
Both murmurs are loudest at the apex, but the murmur of MVP tends to be more late systolic than pansystolic (as for cardiomyopathy), and MVP more commonly radiates to the sternum or aortic area as the posterior leaflet of the MV is more commonly affected than the anterior one. MVP may also have a mid systolic click. (link)Incorrect
MVP (and papillary muscle dysfunction) usually has a normal first heart sound, whereas other causes usually cause a soft H1.
Both murmurs are loudest at the apex, but the murmur of MVP tends to be more late systolic than pansystolic (as for cardiomyopathy), and MVP more commonly radiates to the sternum or aortic area as the posterior leaflet of the MV is more commonly affected than the anterior one. MVP may also have a mid systolic click. (link) -
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
The feature of tricuspid regurgitation that would be least useful in differentiating triscuspid regurgitation from mitral regurgitation is
Correct
There is a prominent v wave in the JVP in TR, not a prominent a wave (as might be expected in TS). Other features such as a pulsatile liver, ascites and prominent peripheral oedema are also suggestive of TR. (link)
Incorrect
There is a prominent v wave in the JVP in TR, not a prominent a wave (as might be expected in TS). Other features such as a pulsatile liver, ascites and prominent peripheral oedema are also suggestive of TR. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
The most common cause of clinically significant tricuspid regurgitation is
Correct
TR is caused by tricuspid annular dilation in 75% of cases. This can be due to left or right ventricular failure or pulmonary hypertension.
Other causes include infective endocarditis (especially IV drug users), rheumatic heart disease (usually associated with mitral valve disease), Epstein’s anomaly, papillary muscle dysfunction, transvenous pacemaker insertion and trauma (rarely). It is commonly physiological with 75% of normal people having trivial – mild TR on echocardiography, however this is not clinically significant. (link)Incorrect
TR is caused by tricuspid annular dilation in 75% of cases. This can be due to left or right ventricular failure or pulmonary hypertension.
Other causes include infective endocarditis (especially IV drug users), rheumatic heart disease (usually associated with mitral valve disease), Epstein’s anomaly, papillary muscle dysfunction, transvenous pacemaker insertion and trauma (rarely). It is commonly physiological with 75% of normal people having trivial – mild TR on echocardiography, however this is not clinically significant. (link) -
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
The sensitivity of clinical examination for the detection of moderate TR is approximately
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The clinical features of typical tricuspid stenosis include all of the following except
Correct
TS is very rare, and nearly always rheumatic in origin with the aortic and mitral valves also involved. The JVP typically shows a slow y descent and a prominent a wave (if still in sinus rhythm). The diastolic murmur is similar to MS but louder on inspiration. There may be a pre-systolic pulsation of the liver. (link)
Incorrect
TS is very rare, and nearly always rheumatic in origin with the aortic and mitral valves also involved. The JVP typically shows a slow y descent and a prominent a wave (if still in sinus rhythm). The diastolic murmur is similar to MS but louder on inspiration. There may be a pre-systolic pulsation of the liver. (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
The examination feature least likely to help differentiate pulmonary stenosis from aortic stenosis is
Correct
Pulmonary stenosis is uncommon, and is congenital in the vast majority of cases in children, often associated with other congenital abnormalities. In adult, carcinoid syndrome is a cause. The clinical features include peripheral cyanosis, a reduced pulse pressure , giant a waves in elevated JVP, a right ventricular heave / pulmonary thrill , an ejection click then ejection systolic murmur greatest in inspiration, H4 and pre-systolic hepatic pulsation. An ejection click can also occur in congenital forms of aortic stenosis, so is the least helpful of the features listed in differentiating PS from AS.(link)
Incorrect
Pulmonary stenosis is uncommon, and is congenital in the vast majority of cases in children, often associated with other congenital abnormalities. In adult, carcinoid syndrome is a cause. The clinical features include peripheral cyanosis, a reduced pulse pressure , giant a waves in elevated JVP, a right ventricular heave / pulmonary thrill , an ejection click then ejection systolic murmur greatest in inspiration, H4 and pre-systolic hepatic pulsation. An ejection click can also occur in congenital forms of aortic stenosis, so is the least helpful of the features listed in differentiating PS from AS.(link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
The least useful clinical feature that might help differentiate a VSD from mitral regurgitation is
Correct
The presence of a 3rd heart sound is the least useful differentiating feature as it can be present in either MR or a VSD. The murmur of a VSD is louder on inspiration and loudest at the left sternal border (or apex) whereas the murmur of MR is loudest at the apex and unchanged (or reduced) by inspiration. A VSD does not usually cause pulmonary oedema, whereas MR commonly does (right sided > L due to the direction of the regurgitant jet). (link)
Incorrect
The presence of a 3rd heart sound is the least useful differentiating feature as it can be present in either MR or a VSD. The murmur of a VSD is louder on inspiration and loudest at the left sternal border (or apex) whereas the murmur of MR is loudest at the apex and unchanged (or reduced) by inspiration. A VSD does not usually cause pulmonary oedema, whereas MR commonly does (right sided > L due to the direction of the regurgitant jet). (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
The percentage of murmurs < 2/6 intensity in patients <50 years of age that are benign is approximately
Correct
Approximately 95% of soft murmurs in patients < 50 years of age are benign. Approximately 65% of murrmurs in asymptomatic ED patients are benign. (link)
Incorrect
Approximately 95% of soft murmurs in patients < 50 years of age are benign. Approximately 65% of murrmurs in asymptomatic ED patients are benign. (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following features would make you most suspicious of a pathological cause of a murmur in a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
Correct
Murmurs are present in nearly all women during pregnancy. They are usually soft, mid systolic, are heard along the left sternal border and increase in intensity during pregnancy. Pregnant women may also have continuous murmurs from cervical venous hums or increased mammary blood flow.(link)
Incorrect
Murmurs are present in nearly all women during pregnancy. They are usually soft, mid systolic, are heard along the left sternal border and increase in intensity during pregnancy. Pregnant women may also have continuous murmurs from cervical venous hums or increased mammary blood flow.(link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following pairs of cardiac lesions and the usual location of maximal murmur intensity is incorrect
Correct
Point of maximal intensity Radiation Lesion R 2nd ICS Right carotid artery Aortic stenosis L 5th or 6th ICS Left anterior axillary line, left axilla Mitral regurgitation L axilla or L lower sternal border LRSB, Epigastrium, 5th ICS mid left thorax Tricuspid regurgitation L 5th left ICS mid- left thorax Lower left sternal border Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (link)
Incorrect
Point of maximal intensity Radiation Lesion R 2nd ICS Right carotid artery Aortic stenosis L 5th or 6th ICS Left anterior axillary line, left axilla Mitral regurgitation L axilla or L lower sternal border LRSB, Epigastrium, 5th ICS mid left thorax Tricuspid regurgitation L 5th left ICS mid- left thorax Lower left sternal border Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Which one of the following pairs of cardiac lesions and the usual location of maximal murmur intensity is incorrect
Correct
Point of maximal intensity Radiation Valve lesion Left 2nd ICS Down left sternal border Aortic regurgitation 2nd & 3rd ICS Little Pulmonary regurgitation Apex None Mitral stenosis Lower left sternal edge Little Tricuspid stenosis (link)
Incorrect
Point of maximal intensity Radiation Valve lesion Left 2nd ICS Down left sternal border Aortic regurgitation 2nd & 3rd ICS Little Pulmonary regurgitation Apex None Mitral stenosis Lower left sternal edge Little Tricuspid stenosis (link)
Cardiovascular examination Part 4
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on cardiovascular examination suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical examination skills. The questions are derived from the Prosthetic heart valves, Cardiac murmur differentiation, Endocarditis and Acyanotic lesions with right to left shunt pages. It is suggested these pages are reviewed before taking this quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Which one of the following valve lesions causes a murmur with the least radiation from where it is heard best?
Correct
The murmur of mitral stenosis has virtually no radiation and is only heard at the apex. Pulmonary regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis murmurs also have very little radiation.
The murmur of aortic regurgitation radiates down the left sternal border, that of aortic stenosis to the neck (right carotid artery especially), and tricuspid regurgitation murmurs radiate to the lower right sternal border, epigastrium and/or the 5th ICS in the mid left hemithorax. (link)Incorrect
The murmur of mitral stenosis has virtually no radiation and is only heard at the apex. Pulmonary regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis murmurs also have very little radiation.
The murmur of aortic regurgitation radiates down the left sternal border, that of aortic stenosis to the neck (right carotid artery especially), and tricuspid regurgitation murmurs radiate to the lower right sternal border, epigastrium and/or the 5th ICS in the mid left hemithorax. (link) -
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding acyanotic lesions with left to right shunt is correct
Correct
Acyanotic lesions with left to right shunt are much more common (at least 40% of all congenital heart defects) than cyanotic heart disease (<10%) and are rarely detected soon after birth as pulmonary vascular resistance usually needs to drop (minimum at 3 months) before the clinical features of right to left shunts become obvious. An enlarged heart (or either ventricle) indicates a clinically significant shunt. They consist of ASD, VSD and patent ductus arteriosus. Truncus ateriosus is a single vessel arising from both ventricles and does not have a left to right shunt. (link)
Incorrect
Acyanotic lesions with left to right shunt are much more common (at least 40% of all congenital heart defects) than cyanotic heart disease (<10%) and are rarely detected soon after birth as pulmonary vascular resistance usually needs to drop (minimum at 3 months) before the clinical features of right to left shunts become obvious. An enlarged heart (or either ventricle) indicates a clinically significant shunt. They consist of ASD, VSD and patent ductus arteriosus. Truncus ateriosus is a single vessel arising from both ventricles and does not have a left to right shunt. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
The murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus may have the following qualities except
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
A large atrial septal defect may have all of the following features except
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
In a patient who you suspect has infective left sided native valve endocarditis, which one of the following organs would you examine first for features of thromboembolism?
Correct
The brain is the most commonly affected organ from thromboembolism from left sided native valve endocarditis. The lung is the most commonly affected organ from right sided native valve endocarditis. (link)
Incorrect
The brain is the most commonly affected organ from thromboembolism from left sided native valve endocarditis. The lung is the most commonly affected organ from right sided native valve endocarditis. (link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following features would you least expect in a patient with IV drug use related endocarditis?
Correct
Infective endocarditis due to IVDU is usually right sided and does not usually have the peripheral features of left sided endocarditis (Osler’s nodes. Splinter haemorrhages, Roth’s spots, Janeway lesions), unless there is a patent foramen ovale or left sided valve involvement as well. Other common non cardiac features are fever (80%), anaemia (40%), hepatomegaly (30%) and microscopic haematuria (50%). (link)
Incorrect
Infective endocarditis due to IVDU is usually right sided and does not usually have the peripheral features of left sided endocarditis (Osler’s nodes. Splinter haemorrhages, Roth’s spots, Janeway lesions), unless there is a patent foramen ovale or left sided valve involvement as well. Other common non cardiac features are fever (80%), anaemia (40%), hepatomegaly (30%) and microscopic haematuria (50%). (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral features of infective endocarditis is not correct
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral features of infective endocarditis is not correct
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding Osler’s nodes in infective endocarditis is incorrect
Correct
Osler’s nodes are sterile lesions due to immune complex deposition and usually only last for a few days. More acute forms of endocarditis (eg Staph aureus) usually present early so Osler’s nodes are uncommon. (link)
Incorrect
Osler’s nodes are sterile lesions due to immune complex deposition and usually only last for a few days. More acute forms of endocarditis (eg Staph aureus) usually present early so Osler’s nodes are uncommon. (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding Janeway lesions in infective endocarditis is incorrect
Correct
Janeway lesions are painless lesions that contain bacteria and are more common in acute (esp. Staph Aureus) endocarditis. They may be haemorrhagic and last for days to weeks, but usually have an acral distribution, not an extensor distribution. (link)
Incorrect
Janeway lesions are painless lesions that contain bacteria and are more common in acute (esp. Staph Aureus) endocarditis. They may be haemorrhagic and last for days to weeks, but usually have an acral distribution, not an extensor distribution. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
How many splinter haemorrhages need to be present to be considered abnormal?
Correct
Up to 4 splinter haemorrhages are considered normal, as they can occur due to trauma (especially in those that work with their hands). (link)
Incorrect
Up to 4 splinter haemorrhages are considered normal, as they can occur due to trauma (especially in those that work with their hands). (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following statements comparing bioprosthetic and mechanical heart valves in endocarditis is incorrect
Correct
Bioprosthetic valves are more likely to become stenotic than mechanical valves, but are less prone to ring abscesses that cause valve dehiscence, perivalvular leaks and purulent pericarditis. (link)
Incorrect
Bioprosthetic valves are more likely to become stenotic than mechanical valves, but are less prone to ring abscesses that cause valve dehiscence, perivalvular leaks and purulent pericarditis. (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
The most common congenital cardiac defect is
Correct
An ASD is the most common defect as it includes those people who only have a patent foramen ovale (25% of the population) without significant right to left shunting. The frequency of PFO in the general population has only recently been acknowleged, so many references markedly underestimate the frequency of ASDs as a group. MVP is the most common valve lesion (2-3%) (although you could argue it is a genetically acquired rather than a congenital defect) with bicuspid aortic valves not far behind (2%). VSD is the second most common congenital heart defect (or the most common if you don’t consider a PFO as a defect). (link)
Incorrect
An ASD is the most common defect as it includes those people who only have a patent foramen ovale (25% of the population) without significant right to left shunting. The frequency of PFO in the general population has only recently been acknowleged, so many references markedly underestimate the frequency of ASDs as a group. MVP is the most common valve lesion (2-3%) (although you could argue it is a genetically acquired rather than a congenital defect) with bicuspid aortic valves not far behind (2%). VSD is the second most common congenital heart defect (or the most common if you don’t consider a PFO as a defect). (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Examination features of a clinically significant ASD might include all of the following except
Correct
Patients with ASD are usually in sinus rhythm until 30-40 years of age but atrial fibrillation / SVT is common in older patients. There is usually a normal first heart sound but wide and fixed splitting of the second sound due to delayed emptying of the right ventricle. A soft pulmonary systolic murmur with a mid systolic peak due to increased flow over normal pulmonary valve can also occur. A mid diastolic tricuspid flow murmur may be present if the shunt is large but the flow across the atrial septal defect itself does not produce a murmur. (link)
Incorrect
Patients with ASD are usually in sinus rhythm until 30-40 years of age but atrial fibrillation / SVT is common in older patients. There is usually a normal first heart sound but wide and fixed splitting of the second sound due to delayed emptying of the right ventricle. A soft pulmonary systolic murmur with a mid systolic peak due to increased flow over normal pulmonary valve can also occur. A mid diastolic tricuspid flow murmur may be present if the shunt is large but the flow across the atrial septal defect itself does not produce a murmur. (link)
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Approximately what percentage of patients with a VSD have other cardiac defects?
Correct
Approximately 25% of patients with a VSD have other cardiac defects.
In about 5% of cases the VSD is just below the aortic valve and may undermine the valve annulus to cause aortic regurgitation. In 5% of cases it is near the junction of the mitral and tricuspid valves, causing regurgitation of these valves. (link)Incorrect
Approximately 25% of patients with a VSD have other cardiac defects.
In about 5% of cases the VSD is just below the aortic valve and may undermine the valve annulus to cause aortic regurgitation. In 5% of cases it is near the junction of the mitral and tricuspid valves, causing regurgitation of these valves. (link)
Abdominal examination Part 1
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on clinical examination of the abdomen. It is ideally suited to people sitting the ACEM Fellowship clinical examination, but is equally useful for anyone wanting to refine their clinical examination skills.The average score for this quiz so far is about 30%.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Which one of the following statements best describes the anatomy of the normal liver
Correct
The liver rarely extends > 6 cm across the midline into the left upper quadrant, It has a convex upper surface and usually extends to level of 5th – 6th rib anteriorly in quiet respiration. The lower surface tends to be concave, with the gall bladder in it and descends 2-3 cm in inspiration with the anterior surface rotating slightly to the right. The Falciform ligament is a fold of peritoneum that joins the mid anterior surface of the liver to the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall and divides the liver into right and left lobes. (Link)
Incorrect
The liver rarely extends > 6 cm across the midline into the left upper quadrant, It has a convex upper surface and usually extends to level of 5th – 6th rib anteriorly in quiet respiration. The lower surface tends to be concave, with the gall bladder in it and descends 2-3 cm in inspiration with the anterior surface rotating slightly to the right. The Falciform ligament is a fold of peritoneum that joins the mid anterior surface of the liver to the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall and divides the liver into right and left lobes. (Link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
All of the following statements regarding the span of the normal liver are correct EXCEPT
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
All of the following statements regarding friction rubs of the liver are correct EXCEPT
Correct
Friction rubs of the liver are always abnormal, but are rare and nonspecific. They can be due to primary and metastatic malignancies (in < 10%), following liver biopsy or with infective and inflammatory conditions. (Link)
Incorrect
Friction rubs of the liver are always abnormal, but are rare and nonspecific. They can be due to primary and metastatic malignancies (in < 10%), following liver biopsy or with infective and inflammatory conditions. (Link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Which of the following statements regarding auscultatory findings in the abdomen is most correct
Correct
Venous hums occur in portal venous hypertension and are a low-pitched murmur with systolic and diastolic components. They arise from communication between the umbilical/paraumbilical and abdominal wall veins and have inconsistent responses to Valsalva, splenic pressure. They can be distinguished from arterial bruits as aterial bruits are rarely continuous. (Link)
Incorrect
Venous hums occur in portal venous hypertension and are a low-pitched murmur with systolic and diastolic components. They arise from communication between the umbilical/paraumbilical and abdominal wall veins and have inconsistent responses to Valsalva, splenic pressure. They can be distinguished from arterial bruits as aterial bruits are rarely continuous. (Link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
Which of the following statements regarding auscultatory findings in the abdomen is most correct
Correct
A continous murmur can occur with splanchnic circulation AVM or hepatic haemangioma. Many types of liver tumours can cause bruits, however < 3% of hepatic tumours cause bruits. Only 1% of unselected general medical patients have some kind of abdominal bruit and venous hums are usually lower pitched than arterial bruits. (Link)
Incorrect
A continous murmur can occur with splanchnic circulation AVM or hepatic haemangioma. Many types of liver tumours can cause bruits, however < 3% of hepatic tumours cause bruits. Only 1% of unselected general medical patients have some kind of abdominal bruit and venous hums are usually lower pitched than arterial bruits. (Link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
All of the following statements regarding liver examination is correct EXCEPT
Correct
The measurement of liver span is more important than palpability of its lower border. There is only moderate inter observer agreement for the presence of a palpable liver edge.About 80% of people have some palpable infracostal extension of the liver so a palpable liver has < 50% chance of being enlarged.. Extension > 2 cm below the costal margin (i.e. more than just palpable) is usually due to hepatomegaly (LR+ 2.5, LR- 0.45). (Link)
Incorrect
The measurement of liver span is more important than palpability of its lower border. There is only moderate inter observer agreement for the presence of a palpable liver edge.About 80% of people have some palpable infracostal extension of the liver so a palpable liver has < 50% chance of being enlarged.. Extension > 2 cm below the costal margin (i.e. more than just palpable) is usually due to hepatomegaly (LR+ 2.5, LR- 0.45). (Link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Which one of the following conditions is NOT usually associated with massive hepatomegaly
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Which one of the following conditions is NOT usually associated with moderate hepatomegaly
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The lower limit of bilirubin detectable clinically In adults with acute jaundice is approximately
Correct
Jaundice is difficult to detect clinically unless bilirubin > 40 µmol/L, although it may still be visible at < 40 µmol/L if it is resolving. The sensitivity of the clinical detection of jaundice is 70% for bilirubin levels > 50 µmol/L, 85% for > 170 µmol/L and 95% for > 250 µmol/L. (Link)
Incorrect
Jaundice is difficult to detect clinically unless bilirubin > 40 µmol/L, although it may still be visible at < 40 µmol/L if it is resolving. The sensitivity of the clinical detection of jaundice is 70% for bilirubin levels > 50 µmol/L, 85% for > 170 µmol/L and 95% for > 250 µmol/L. (Link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
The most specific finding for the presence of ascites is
Correct
Shifting dullness to percussion is about 75% sensitive and specific for collections of > 500 mL. Bulging flanks is about 80% sensitive and 50% specific. A fluid thrill is about 60% sensitive and 90% specific for ascites. A succussion splash is a sign of gastric outlet obstruction, not of ascites. (Link)
Incorrect
Shifting dullness to percussion is about 75% sensitive and specific for collections of > 500 mL. Bulging flanks is about 80% sensitive and 50% specific. A fluid thrill is about 60% sensitive and 90% specific for ascites. A succussion splash is a sign of gastric outlet obstruction, not of ascites. (Link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
The smallest number of spider naevi that would be considered abnormal in an adult male is
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Typical Campbell de Morgan spots are characterised by all of the following except
Correct
Campbell de Morgan spots are also known as cherry angioma and are due to proliferation of blood vessels. They are the main differential diagnosis of spider naevi, but are are non blanching, are usually 1-2mm in diameter and rarely > 6mm diameter whereas spider naevi can be up to 1cm in diameter. They appear commonly in middle to late age on the chest and usually have no underlying cause. (Link)
Incorrect
Campbell de Morgan spots are also known as cherry angioma and are due to proliferation of blood vessels. They are the main differential diagnosis of spider naevi, but are are non blanching, are usually 1-2mm in diameter and rarely > 6mm diameter whereas spider naevi can be up to 1cm in diameter. They appear commonly in middle to late age on the chest and usually have no underlying cause. (Link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Gynaecomastia is considered present if the amount of subareolar breast tissue in a male is
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Palmar erythema due to liver disease is usually
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding palmar erythema is incorrect
Correct
Palmar erythema is a non specific finding with multiple causes.
It is most commonly idiopathic but 25% of patients with cirrhosis will have it. It occurs in 30% of pregnant women, 60% of patients with Rheumatoid arthritis and is less common in sarcoidosis, SLE, and polyarthritis. It occurs in 20% of patients with thyrotoxicosis, 5% of patients with diabetes mellitus and can be caused by polycythaemia, leukaemia, eczema, psoriasis, cerebral tumours, amiodarone, gemfibrozil, cholestyramine, topiramate and salbutamol. (Link)Incorrect
Palmar erythema is a non specific finding with multiple causes.
It is most commonly idiopathic but 25% of patients with cirrhosis will have it. It occurs in 30% of pregnant women, 60% of patients with Rheumatoid arthritis and is less common in sarcoidosis, SLE, and polyarthritis. It occurs in 20% of patients with thyrotoxicosis, 5% of patients with diabetes mellitus and can be caused by polycythaemia, leukaemia, eczema, psoriasis, cerebral tumours, amiodarone, gemfibrozil, cholestyramine, topiramate and salbutamol. (Link)
Abdominal examination Part 2
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This is Part 2 of the Abdominal examination MCQs. It comprises of 15, single best choice of 4 options, questions. The average score so far is about 35%.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
Which one of the following abdominal diseases causes clubbing
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding examination for splenomegaly is incorrect
Correct
The sensitivity and specificity of percussion for splenomegaly is approximately 80%, with the sensitivity reduced in obesity and the specificity reduced following recent food intake. Palpation is only approximately 25% sensitive but > 95% specific. (Link)
Incorrect
The sensitivity and specificity of percussion for splenomegaly is approximately 80%, with the sensitivity reduced in obesity and the specificity reduced following recent food intake. Palpation is only approximately 25% sensitive but > 95% specific. (Link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
The examination features of a palpable kidney include all of the following except
Correct
A kidney usually moves downward a little with respiration and is unable to be palpated above it. Due to overlying colon, it is usually resonant to percussion, It is usually balottable from the loin.
Incorrect
A kidney usually moves downward a little with respiration and is unable to be palpated above it. Due to overlying colon, it is usually resonant to percussion, It is usually balottable from the loin.
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding palpation of normal kidneys is correct
Correct
Both kidneys may be palpable in the first 48 hours of the neonatal period, but only the lower pole of the right kidney is usually palpable in about 10% of normal people. This is because it is lower than the left, not due to any maldistribution of peri-renal fat. (Link)
Incorrect
Both kidneys may be palpable in the first 48 hours of the neonatal period, but only the lower pole of the right kidney is usually palpable in about 10% of normal people. This is because it is lower than the left, not due to any maldistribution of peri-renal fat. (Link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The normal adult bladder usually becomes palpable in the abdomen when it contains
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following features would be most expected on rectal examination of a normal prostate
Correct
The normal prostate is usually 4 cm wide, 2.5 to 3 cm high, 4.5 cm long and has a volume of 20 mL. It is normally non tender, smooth, slightly movable, and of rubbery consistency. Two distinct lobes should be felt separated by a median sulcus with distinct lateral sulci. (Link)
Incorrect
The normal prostate is usually 4 cm wide, 2.5 to 3 cm high, 4.5 cm long and has a volume of 20 mL. It is normally non tender, smooth, slightly movable, and of rubbery consistency. Two distinct lobes should be felt separated by a median sulcus with distinct lateral sulci. (Link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
A normal transplanted kidney usually
Correct
A normal transplanted kidney usually lies beneath an arcuate LIF (or RIF scar), is a 8-12 cm ovoid mass that is superficial (extraperitoneal), relatively mobile and able to be palpated around. It is normally non-tender and has no movement on respiration.(Link)
Incorrect
A normal transplanted kidney usually lies beneath an arcuate LIF (or RIF scar), is a 8-12 cm ovoid mass that is superficial (extraperitoneal), relatively mobile and able to be palpated around. It is normally non-tender and has no movement on respiration.(Link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Which one of the following findings would indicated an enlarged spleen
Correct
The Normal dimensionsof the adult spleen are: length < 12 cm; width < 7 cm; cephalocaudad diameter < 13 cm; and weight < 250 g. Dullness > 8 cm above the costal margin indicates splenomegaly. (Link)
Incorrect
The Normal dimensionsof the adult spleen are: length < 12 cm; width < 7 cm; cephalocaudad diameter < 13 cm; and weight < 250 g. Dullness > 8 cm above the costal margin indicates splenomegaly. (Link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The approximate percentage of normal people who have a palpable spleen is
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
All of the following examination features are likely to indicate a spleen EXCEPT
Correct
The examination features of the spleen are: unable to get above it; palpable notch; moves towards RIF on inspiration; ballotable from laterally; dull to percussion. (Link)
Incorrect
The examination features of the spleen are: unable to get above it; palpable notch; moves towards RIF on inspiration; ballotable from laterally; dull to percussion. (Link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following conditions is the least likely to cause massive splenomegaly
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following conditions is the least likely to cause moderate splenomegaly
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following conditions is the least likely to cause moderate splenomegaly
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following conditions is the most likely to cause moderate splenomegaly
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Dupuytren’s contracture is associated with all of the following except
Correct
The features of Dupuytren’s contracture include thickening of the palmar fascia (usually the ring or little finger) that starts as a nodule and may develop into a fibrous band leading to fixed flexion at the MCP and PIP joints. It is associated with Garrod’s knuckle pads in 50%, plantar fibromatosis in 20% and penile fibromatosis (Peyronie’s disease) in 5%. It has a variety of causes including alcohol
ism, anticonvulsants, smoking, diabetes and may be idiopathic.(Link)Incorrect
The features of Dupuytren’s contracture include thickening of the palmar fascia (usually the ring or little finger) that starts as a nodule and may develop into a fibrous band leading to fixed flexion at the MCP and PIP joints. It is associated with Garrod’s knuckle pads in 50%, plantar fibromatosis in 20% and penile fibromatosis (Peyronie’s disease) in 5%. It has a variety of causes including alcohol
ism, anticonvulsants, smoking, diabetes and may be idiopathic.(Link)
Respiratory examination Part 1
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on respiratory examination suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination, or those who would just like to refine their clinical skills.The average score so far is 50%.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The percussion note expected to be heard over normal lung is
Correct
Flatness is a short sound found on percussion over muscles. Dullness is a longer sound found over fluid filled cavities. Hyperresonance is found over emphysematous lung and tympany is a longer sound typical of a large single gas filled structure such as bowel. (link)
Incorrect
Flatness is a short sound found on percussion over muscles. Dullness is a longer sound found over fluid filled cavities. Hyperresonance is found over emphysematous lung and tympany is a longer sound typical of a large single gas filled structure such as bowel. (link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
Breath sounds
Correct
Breath sounds are normally longer in inspiration than expiration, usually reduced by endobronchial obstruction, are harsher in bronchial breathing and have a dry,early – mid inspiratory, crackling nature in pulmonary fibrosis. Crepitations of pulmonary oedema are wet sounding. (link)
Incorrect
Breath sounds are normally longer in inspiration than expiration, usually reduced by endobronchial obstruction, are harsher in bronchial breathing and have a dry,early – mid inspiratory, crackling nature in pulmonary fibrosis. Crepitations of pulmonary oedema are wet sounding. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
A normal forced expiratory time from full inspiration to full expiration is
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
When asked to count upwards from 1 a normal person should be able to count to at least
Correct
A normal person should be able to count to 15. If unable to do so, this indicates poor respiratory reserve. (link)
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The most reliable examination finding of a small area of unilateral lung collapse is
Correct
Whispering pectoriloquy and increased tactile fremitus are less reliable signs of collapse than comparative dullness to percussion. The effect of collapse on breath sounds is variable, depending on whether the bronchus is obstructed or not. The trachea will be displaced to the ipsilateral side only if the collapse is large.(link)
Incorrect
Whispering pectoriloquy and increased tactile fremitus are less reliable signs of collapse than comparative dullness to percussion. The effect of collapse on breath sounds is variable, depending on whether the bronchus is obstructed or not. The trachea will be displaced to the ipsilateral side only if the collapse is large.(link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
The most likely examination finding of an area of lung consolidation is
Correct
Increased tactile fremitus and whispering pectoriloquy may occur, but are less common than crackles on auscultation. Breath sounds are more likely to be bronchial in nature, than absent and hyperinflation would not be expected to occur. (link)
Incorrect
Increased tactile fremitus and whispering pectoriloquy may occur, but are less common than crackles on auscultation. Breath sounds are more likely to be bronchial in nature, than absent and hyperinflation would not be expected to occur. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
The most likely examination finding in a patient with an area of unilateral small – moderate pleural effusion is
Correct
Abnormal comparative percussion is most likely in pleural effusion.Increased tactile fremitus and bronchial breathing may be present if there is collapse above the effusion, but are less reliable findings. A pleural rub would not be expected and tracheal displacement to the contralateral side only occurs with very large effusions. (link)
Incorrect
Abnormal comparative percussion is most likely in pleural effusion.Increased tactile fremitus and bronchial breathing may be present if there is collapse above the effusion, but are less reliable findings. A pleural rub would not be expected and tracheal displacement to the contralateral side only occurs with very large effusions. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
The manubriosternal angle (of Louis) is located at the following level
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
The angle of the scapula corresponds to the following level
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the lung is not correct
Correct
The right oblique fissure runs slightly posteriorly to the left, which may help to identify it on the lateral CXR. The pleura may protrude slightly inferiorly to the costal margin on the right side, but not on the left (this is why the left xiphisternal region is suitable for pericardiocentesis). The pleural reflection follows the left border of the sternum until the 4th CC then deviates to almost the midclavicular line by the 6th CC.
Incorrect
The right oblique fissure runs slightly posteriorly to the left, which may help to identify it on the lateral CXR. The pleura may protrude slightly inferiorly to the costal margin on the right side, but not on the left (this is why the left xiphisternal region is suitable for pericardiocentesis). The pleural reflection follows the left border of the sternum until the 4th CC then deviates to almost the midclavicular line by the 6th CC.
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding thoracic anatomy is correct
Correct
False ribs articulate with the 7th costal cartilage. The nipple is males is in the 4th ICS in the midclavicular line. Cervical ribs are present in < 1% of the population and lumbar ribs are much less common that cervical ribs. The apex of the pleura extends up to 2cm into the supraclavicular fossa, hence may be damaged with wounds or procedures in this area.
Incorrect
False ribs articulate with the 7th costal cartilage. The nipple is males is in the 4th ICS in the midclavicular line. Cervical ribs are present in < 1% of the population and lumbar ribs are much less common that cervical ribs. The apex of the pleura extends up to 2cm into the supraclavicular fossa, hence may be damaged with wounds or procedures in this area.
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
In the supine patient, the level of the diaphragm in the midclavicular line anteriorly may be as high as the
Correct
This is why intercostal catheter placement in the supine patient should occur at a high level.
Incorrect
This is why intercostal catheter placement in the supine patient should occur at a high level.
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
The long thoracic nerve runs
Correct
This is why intercostal catheter insertion should occur in the anterior axillary line or posterior to the mid axillary line.
Incorrect
This is why intercostal catheter insertion should occur in the anterior axillary line or posterior to the mid axillary line.
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
All of the following causes of pulmonary fibrosis involve predominantly the lower lobes EXCEPT
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
All of the following causes of pulmonary fibrosis involve predominantly the upper lobes EXCEPT
Respiratory examination Part 2
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The features of clubbing of the fingers include all of the following except
Correct
Features of clubbing include; an AP diameter of the finger at the nail bed: at the DIP joint > 1; fluctuation of the nail bed; beaking of the fingernail; rounding of the nail plate; flattening of the angle between the nail plate and proximal nail skin fold; and shiny smooth skin over the cuticle. (Link)
Incorrect
Features of clubbing include; an AP diameter of the finger at the nail bed: at the DIP joint > 1; fluctuation of the nail bed; beaking of the fingernail; rounding of the nail plate; flattening of the angle between the nail plate and proximal nail skin fold; and shiny smooth skin over the cuticle. (Link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The most common respiratory cause of clubbing is
Correct
The most common pulmonary cause of clubbing is lung cancer. Less common causes are idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, empyema, lung abscess and bronchiectasis. It is uncommon in COPD and TB. (Link)
Incorrect
The most common pulmonary cause of clubbing is lung cancer. Less common causes are idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, empyema, lung abscess and bronchiectasis. It is uncommon in COPD and TB. (Link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Normal chest expansion when measured by placing the fingers of each hand on lateral aspect of patients chest and measuring the degree of movement between the examiners thumbs between full inspiration and expiration is at least
Correct
Normal chest expansion is > 5 cm. It is generally reduced in chest hyperexpansion and fibrosis and locally reduced due to many underlying causes. (Link)
Incorrect
Normal chest expansion is > 5 cm. It is generally reduced in chest hyperexpansion and fibrosis and locally reduced due to many underlying causes. (Link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding breath sounds is not correct
Correct
Inspiration is louder and longer than expiration with normal vesicular breath sounds. Bronchial breath sounds have a tubular quality and a more pronounced expiratory phase. Egophony is the change of the pronounced sound of ‘eee’ to ‘aaye’. Coarse crackles are gurgling in quality and imply fluid in small airways. (Link)
Incorrect
Inspiration is louder and longer than expiration with normal vesicular breath sounds. Bronchial breath sounds have a tubular quality and a more pronounced expiratory phase. Egophony is the change of the pronounced sound of ‘eee’ to ‘aaye’. Coarse crackles are gurgling in quality and imply fluid in small airways. (Link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
Causes of pulmonary fibrosis that usually affect any zone of the lungs include all of the following except
Correct
Causes of pulmonary fibrosis that can affect any area of the lung include: radiation, smoke inhalation, ARDS, methotrexate, hydralazine, nitrofurantoin, amiodarone, busulphan, cyclophosphamide, methysergide and paraquat. Coal miners pneumoconiosis usually affects the upper lobes. (Link)
Incorrect
Causes of pulmonary fibrosis that can affect any area of the lung include: radiation, smoke inhalation, ARDS, methotrexate, hydralazine, nitrofurantoin, amiodarone, busulphan, cyclophosphamide, methysergide and paraquat. Coal miners pneumoconiosis usually affects the upper lobes. (Link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Which one of the following physical findings is the strongest indicator of the presence of COPD
Correct
The likelihood ratios for COPD are: Barrel chest and loss of cardiac dullness to percussion – 10; rhonchi – 6; hyperresonance – 4.8; FET > 9 – 4.8; FET < 6 – 0.45; pulsus paradoxus – 3.7; decreased breath sounds – 3.7. (Link)
Incorrect
The likelihood ratios for COPD are: Barrel chest and loss of cardiac dullness to percussion – 10; rhonchi – 6; hyperresonance – 4.8; FET > 9 – 4.8; FET < 6 – 0.45; pulsus paradoxus – 3.7; decreased breath sounds – 3.7. (Link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Pancoast’s syndrome usually has the following features except
Correct
Pancoast’s syndrome is an apical tumour with local extension and is usually a squamous cell carcinoma. The C8, T1, T2 nerves are often involved with pain along their nerve roots. Destruction of 1st and 2nd ribs may also occur. (Link)
Incorrect
Pancoast’s syndrome is an apical tumour with local extension and is usually a squamous cell carcinoma. The C8, T1, T2 nerves are often involved with pain along their nerve roots. Destruction of 1st and 2nd ribs may also occur. (Link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
The strongest predictor of community acquired pneumonia on examination is
Correct
The positive LRs for CAP are: egophony – 6; bronchial breath sounds – 3.5, dullness to percussion – 3; T > 37.8 C – 3; RR > 25/min. – 2.5; crackles – 2.5, decreased breath sounds – 2.4. (Link)
Incorrect
The positive LRs for CAP are: egophony – 6; bronchial breath sounds – 3.5, dullness to percussion – 3; T > 37.8 C – 3; RR > 25/min. – 2.5; crackles – 2.5, decreased breath sounds – 2.4. (Link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the examination findings in pneumothorax is false
Correct
Decreased breath sounds are about 75% sensitive whilst increased percussion note is only 10% sensitive. Small pneumothoraces (< 15%) may have no obvious clinical signs. Tracheal deviation occurs in < 25% of cases of tension pneumothorax, so is an insensitive feature. (Link)
Incorrect
Decreased breath sounds are about 75% sensitive whilst increased percussion note is only 10% sensitive. Small pneumothoraces (< 15%) may have no obvious clinical signs. Tracheal deviation occurs in < 25% of cases of tension pneumothorax, so is an insensitive feature. (Link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding paraneoplastic syndromes from lung tumours is correct
Correct
Hypercalcaemia and hypoglycaemia are most commonly caused by squamous cell tumours. Eaton Lambert syndrome, hyponatraemia, carcinoid and ectopic ACTH are most common in small cell tumours. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is usually due to adenocarcinoma. (Link)
Incorrect
Hypercalcaemia and hypoglycaemia are most commonly caused by squamous cell tumours. Eaton Lambert syndrome, hyponatraemia, carcinoid and ectopic ACTH are most common in small cell tumours. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is usually due to adenocarcinoma. (Link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Which one of the following features would you least expect to find in a patient with superior vena cava syndrome?
Correct
SVC syndrome may have features of voice hoarseness, however true stridor or dysphagia are rare.
Upper body oedema is common, especially of the face, neck, periorbital tissue and tongue. The neck veins are usually distended and there is facial plethora or telangiectasia. Elevation of the arms (Pemberton’s sign) causes worsening facial suffusion. (Link)Incorrect
SVC syndrome may have features of voice hoarseness, however true stridor or dysphagia are rare.
Upper body oedema is common, especially of the face, neck, periorbital tissue and tongue. The neck veins are usually distended and there is facial plethora or telangiectasia. Elevation of the arms (Pemberton’s sign) causes worsening facial suffusion. (Link) -
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
The sensitivity of the clinical detection of cyanosis at a paO2 of 75% is
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
The normal AP:Transverse chest ratio in an adult is
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
The normal AP:transverse chest ratio in a 3 month old is
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding breath sounds is incorrect
Correct
The inspiratory crackles of pulmonary fibrosis tend to be later in onset and of longer duration than the crackles of pulmonary oedema. Bronchial breath sounds may be normal over the central region of the chest and the apex of the right lung. Wheezes and rhonchi have a duration of > 250 milliseconds. Wheezes are higher pitched than rhonchi. (Link)
Incorrect
The inspiratory crackles of pulmonary fibrosis tend to be later in onset and of longer duration than the crackles of pulmonary oedema. Bronchial breath sounds may be normal over the central region of the chest and the apex of the right lung. Wheezes and rhonchi have a duration of > 250 milliseconds. Wheezes are higher pitched than rhonchi. (Link)
Neurological examination Part 1
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on neurological examination. It is suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions in this quiz are derived from the content of the Peripheral nervous system examination page, so revising this page is advised before taking the quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The minimum difference in diameter between the dominant and non dominant leg considered abnormal is
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The minimum difference in diameter between the dominant and non dominant arm considered abnormal is
Correct
The minimum difference in diameter between the dominant and non dominant arm considered abnormal is 0.5cm. (link)
Incorrect
The minimum difference in diameter between the dominant and non dominant arm considered abnormal is 0.5cm. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Pathological fasciculations are usually
Correct
Random generalised twitches are pathological and their presence implies a lower motor neurone lesion. They are of the same rapidity and strength as benign fasciculations, however benign fasciculations are characterised by a repetitive twitch in the same muscle fibre, whereas pathological fasciculations tend to be random and generalised in a muscle. (link)
Incorrect
Random generalised twitches are pathological and their presence implies a lower motor neurone lesion. They are of the same rapidity and strength as benign fasciculations, however benign fasciculations are characterised by a repetitive twitch in the same muscle fibre, whereas pathological fasciculations tend to be random and generalised in a muscle. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Fasciculations
Correct
Fasciculations may be difficult to see in overweight patients and are easiest to see in the first dorsal interosseous muscle of the hand. Strong muscle contraction or percussion may increase the frequency of the fasciculations following relaxation. Fasciculations are rare following peripheral nerve lesions and can be caused by motor neurone disease, motor root compression, motor neuropathies and myopathies. (link)
Incorrect
Fasciculations may be difficult to see in overweight patients and are easiest to see in the first dorsal interosseous muscle of the hand. Strong muscle contraction or percussion may increase the frequency of the fasciculations following relaxation. Fasciculations are rare following peripheral nerve lesions and can be caused by motor neurone disease, motor root compression, motor neuropathies and myopathies. (link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
When tone is normal, rapid passive flexion of the knee usually
Correct
When tone is normal, rapid passive flexion of the knee usually raises the heel off the bed slightly and transiently. If the heel drags across the bed from the start, this indicates hypotonia. If the heel is jerked upward, this indicates increased tone. Reinforcement techniques are used to increase the strength of weak reflexes, but do not usually increase muscle tone. (link)
Incorrect
When tone is normal, rapid passive flexion of the knee usually raises the heel off the bed slightly and transiently. If the heel drags across the bed from the start, this indicates hypotonia. If the heel is jerked upward, this indicates increased tone. Reinforcement techniques are used to increase the strength of weak reflexes, but do not usually increase muscle tone. (link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Rapid passive flexion and extension of the elbow or knee that produces a transient increase in resistance after a period of normal resistance, and is then overcome is called
Correct
Clasp knife rigidity is due to a heightened stretch reflex from an upper motor neuron lesion. Rapid passive flexion and extension of the elbow or knee produces a transient increase in resistance that occurs after a period of normal resistance, and is then overcome. (link)
Incorrect
Clasp knife rigidity is due to a heightened stretch reflex from an upper motor neuron lesion. Rapid passive flexion and extension of the elbow or knee produces a transient increase in resistance that occurs after a period of normal resistance, and is then overcome. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
An increase in tone that is equal in flexors and extensors, felt throughout the range of movement and that may gradually increase in intensity with repeated motion is
Correct
With lead pipe rigidity the increase in tone is equal in the flexors and extensors and is felt throughout the range of movement. It may be easier to detect with slow movements and may gradually increase in intensity with repeated motion. (link)
Incorrect
With lead pipe rigidity the increase in tone is equal in the flexors and extensors and is felt throughout the range of movement. It may be easier to detect with slow movements and may gradually increase in intensity with repeated motion. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
A rapid, regular series of resistances during passive movement is called
Correct
Cog wheel rigidity is a rapid, regular series of resistances during passive movement. It may occur in essential or familial tremor in the presence of normal tone and is one of the classical features of Parkinsonism. (link)
Incorrect
Cog wheel rigidity is a rapid, regular series of resistances during passive movement. It may occur in essential or familial tremor in the presence of normal tone and is one of the classical features of Parkinsonism. (link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
An equal and opposing force to any attempted movement is called
Correct
Gegenhalten phenomenon is the resistance by the patient against any passive movement. When present attempted movement is met with an equal and opposing force. It is usually associated with diffuse cerebral disease and advanced dementia. It is derived from the german ‘gegen’ – against, and ‘halten’ – to stop.
Hoover’s sign is as follows: with the patient lying in bed, place the palm of the hand between the bed and the heel of the weak limb and ask the patient to raise their unaffected leg. The presence of downward force in the weak leg and the lack of downward force under the good leg when instructed to raise the weak leg indicates feigned weakness. There is no contromano phenomenon! (link)
Incorrect
Gegenhalten phenomenon is the resistance by the patient against any passive movement. When present attempted movement is met with an equal and opposing force. It is usually associated with diffuse cerebral disease and advanced dementia. It is derived from the german ‘gegen’ – against, and ‘halten’ – to stop.
Hoover’s sign is as follows: with the patient lying in bed, place the palm of the hand between the bed and the heel of the weak limb and ask the patient to raise their unaffected leg. The presence of downward force in the weak leg and the lack of downward force under the good leg when instructed to raise the weak leg indicates feigned weakness. There is no contromano phenomenon! (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
Pathological clonus is present when which one of the following occurs
Correct
Clonus is a repetitive contraction of a muscle or muscle group demonstrated by suddenly stretching a muscle. One to two beats of clonus at the ankle is normal in those with naturally brisk reflexes but is considered pathological if it is present at any site other than the ankle or if more than 2 beats are present at the ankle, except in neonates when it can be normal, if not sustained. Fast beats with slow relaxation on lateral gaze is typical of horizontal nystagmus, not clonus. Clonus does not alter the normal pattern of a rapid contraction and longer relaxation of a deep tendon reflex, although tendon reflexes are usually brisk. (link)
Incorrect
Clonus is a repetitive contraction of a muscle or muscle group demonstrated by suddenly stretching a muscle. One to two beats of clonus at the ankle is normal in those with naturally brisk reflexes but is considered pathological if it is present at any site other than the ankle or if more than 2 beats are present at the ankle, except in neonates when it can be normal, if not sustained. Fast beats with slow relaxation on lateral gaze is typical of horizontal nystagmus, not clonus. Clonus does not alter the normal pattern of a rapid contraction and longer relaxation of a deep tendon reflex, although tendon reflexes are usually brisk. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
The production of movement with gravity excluded is classified as
Correct
Muscle power is assessed across joints. The joint is isolated by stabilising the part proximal to the joint with one hand whilst applying force to the limb proximal to the next joint with the other hand. The same segment is then assessed in the opposite limb for comparison. The grading of muscle power is: 0 = complete paralysis; 1 = flicker of contraction; 2 = movement with gravity excluded; 3 = movement against gravity but not resistance; 4 = movement against resistance; 5 = normal power. (link)
Incorrect
Muscle power is assessed across joints. The joint is isolated by stabilising the part proximal to the joint with one hand whilst applying force to the limb proximal to the next joint with the other hand. The same segment is then assessed in the opposite limb for comparison. The grading of muscle power is: 0 = complete paralysis; 1 = flicker of contraction; 2 = movement with gravity excluded; 3 = movement against gravity but not resistance; 4 = movement against resistance; 5 = normal power. (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
When testing deep tendon reflexes the muscle being tested should be
Correct
When testing reflexes, support the limb to ensure the muscle is relaxed and the muscle should be at its resting length or slightly stretched (e.g. slight knee flexion for the patellar reflex). (link)
Incorrect
When testing reflexes, support the limb to ensure the muscle is relaxed and the muscle should be at its resting length or slightly stretched (e.g. slight knee flexion for the patellar reflex). (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
A reflex that is normal in amplitude and velocity without reinforcement is
Correct
Reflexes are usually graded using the following scale: 0 – absent with reinforcement; 1 – present but decreased in amplitude and velocity from the normal range and elicited with reinforcement; 2 – normal amplitude and velocity without reinforcement; 3 – increased in amplitude and/or velocity with spread to adjacent site; 4 – increased in amplitude and/or velocity with spread to adjacent site and duplication of the jerk or clonus. (link)
Incorrect
Reflexes are usually graded using the following scale: 0 – absent with reinforcement; 1 – present but decreased in amplitude and velocity from the normal range and elicited with reinforcement; 2 – normal amplitude and velocity without reinforcement; 3 – increased in amplitude and/or velocity with spread to adjacent site; 4 – increased in amplitude and/or velocity with spread to adjacent site and duplication of the jerk or clonus. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
A plantar reflex would normally be present after
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
The nerve roots involved in the biceps reflex are
Neurological examination Part 2
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on neurological examination. It is suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions in this quiz are derived from the content of the Peripheral nervous system examination page, so revising this page is advised before taking the quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The nerve roots involved in the triceps reflex are
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The nerve roots involved in the finger reflex are
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
The nerve roots involved in the knee reflex are
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
The nerve roots involved in the ankle reflex are
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
The nerve root(s) involved in the plantar reflex is/are
Correct
The nerve root involved in the plantar reflex is S1.
Incorrect
The nerve root involved in the plantar reflex is S1.
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
The cranial nerve(s) involved in the jaw reflex is/are
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Typical features of an upper motor neurone lesion include which one of the following
Correct
Typical features of an upper motor neurone lesion include wasting which is usually absent if acute and only mild when chronic. Tone is increased if chronic and decreased if acute. The weakness is usually greater in extensor and abductor muscles of the upper limb and greater in the flexors of the lower limb. (link)
Incorrect
Typical features of an upper motor neurone lesion include wasting which is usually absent if acute and only mild when chronic. Tone is increased if chronic and decreased if acute. The weakness is usually greater in extensor and abductor muscles of the upper limb and greater in the flexors of the lower limb. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Typical features of a lower motor neurone lesion include all of the following except
Correct
Lower motor neurone lesions typically have wasting that is often profound when chronic, fasciculations, decreased tone and reflexes that are decreased or absent. (link)
Incorrect
Lower motor neurone lesions typically have wasting that is often profound when chronic, fasciculations, decreased tone and reflexes that are decreased or absent. (link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Generalised symmetrical distal weakness is most likely due to a
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
A generalised symmetrical proximal weakness is most likely due to a
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
Ipsilateral cranial nerve lesions and contralateral motor or sensory deficits are most likely due to a
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Weakness associated with visual field disturbance is most likely due to a
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Pain and temperature sensation
Correct
Pain and temperature sensation is transmitted via the spinothalamic pathway with the nerve fibres entering the spinal cord and crossing a few segments higher. It is less sensitive than 2 point discrimination in determining sensory loss in sensitive areas of the body (e.g. palm). The vibration and some proprioception pass through the nucleus gracilis and cuneatus in the medulla after ascending in the posterior columns of the spinal cord. (link)
Incorrect
Pain and temperature sensation is transmitted via the spinothalamic pathway with the nerve fibres entering the spinal cord and crossing a few segments higher. It is less sensitive than 2 point discrimination in determining sensory loss in sensitive areas of the body (e.g. palm). The vibration and some proprioception pass through the nucleus gracilis and cuneatus in the medulla after ascending in the posterior columns of the spinal cord. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
The appropriate tuning fork to test vibration has a frequency of
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding sensory testing is correct
Correct
Vibration testing in a limb should be performed from distal to proximal – if there is no distal loss, then proximal loss is highly unlikely and testing for it can usually be omitted.
The start of sensory loss at the same level around a limb suggests peripheral neuropathy.
When testing joint position sense, the joint should be flexed or extended at least 30 degrees – 10 degrees of movement is insufficient to test normal joint position sense. Light touch sensation is transmitted in the ipsilateral posterior columns and contralateral spinothalamic tracts. (link)Incorrect
Vibration testing in a limb should be performed from distal to proximal – if there is no distal loss, then proximal loss is highly unlikely and testing for it can usually be omitted.
The start of sensory loss at the same level around a limb suggests peripheral neuropathy.
When testing joint position sense, the joint should be flexed or extended at least 30 degrees – 10 degrees of movement is insufficient to test normal joint position sense. Light touch sensation is transmitted in the ipsilateral posterior columns and contralateral spinothalamic tracts. (link)
Neurological examination Part 3
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on neurological examination. It is suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions in this quiz are derived from the content of the Peripheral nervous system examination, Parkinson’s disease , Other movement disorders and Altered mental state pages, so revising these pages is advised before taking the quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
The presence of which one of the following is the strongest predictor of the presence of Parkinson’s disease?
Correct
The positive likelihood ratios for Parkinson’s disease are: shuffling, freezing and festinating gait – 8; rigidity and bradykinesia – 4.5; positive glabellar tap – 4.5; micrographia – 4.2; difficulty walking heel-to-toe – 2.9; generalised increase in tone – 1.5; resting tremor – 1.4;. (link)
Incorrect
The positive likelihood ratios for Parkinson’s disease are: shuffling, freezing and festinating gait – 8; rigidity and bradykinesia – 4.5; positive glabellar tap – 4.5; micrographia – 4.2; difficulty walking heel-to-toe – 2.9; generalised increase in tone – 1.5; resting tremor – 1.4;. (link)
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
The absence of which one of the following makes Parkinson’s disease the most unlikely?
Correct
The negative likelihood ratios for Parkinson’s disease are: generalised increase in tone – 0.8; resting tremor – 0.5; rigidity and bradykinesia – 0.12; shuffling, freezing and festinating gait – 0.4; difficulty walking heel-to-toe – 0.32; positive glabellar tap – 0.13; micrographia – 0.35. (link)
Incorrect
The negative likelihood ratios for Parkinson’s disease are: generalised increase in tone – 0.8; resting tremor – 0.5; rigidity and bradykinesia – 0.12; shuffling, freezing and festinating gait – 0.4; difficulty walking heel-to-toe – 0.32; positive glabellar tap – 0.13; micrographia – 0.35. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
Irregular continuous, spasm like, muscular contractions resulting in slow movements with contractions that continue for > 2 sec are most likely
Correct
Acute dystonia typically has slow, irregular continuous, spasm like muscular contractions that result in slow movements or abnormal postures with contractions that continue for > 2 sec. (link)
Incorrect
Acute dystonia typically has slow, irregular continuous, spasm like muscular contractions that result in slow movements or abnormal postures with contractions that continue for > 2 sec. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
Motor restlessness with increased frequency of regular movements, especially in the legs is most likely
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
Rapid, irregular, repetitive contractions with motionless intervals between contractions and increased movements during activity and by anxiety is most likely
Correct
Dyskinesia typically has rapid, irregular, repetitive contractions with motionless intervals between contractions and increased movements during activity and by anxiety. (link)
Incorrect
Dyskinesia typically has rapid, irregular, repetitive contractions with motionless intervals between contractions and increased movements during activity and by anxiety. (link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
Continuous, randomly distributed movements that are irregular in timing and quality is most likely
Correct
Chorea typically has continuous, randomly distributed movements that are irregular in timing and quality and seem to flow from one part of the body to another with no pattern. (link)
Incorrect
Chorea typically has continuous, randomly distributed movements that are irregular in timing and quality and seem to flow from one part of the body to another with no pattern. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
Large amplitude movements predominantly involving the proximal muscles that are irregular in timing and quality is most likely
Correct
Hemiballismus typically has large amplitude movements predominantly involving proximal muscles that are irregular in timing and quality. (link)
Incorrect
Hemiballismus typically has large amplitude movements predominantly involving proximal muscles that are irregular in timing and quality. (link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
Repetitive, irregular, stereotyped movements that are usually able to be consciously suppressed Is most likely to be
Correct
Tics are repetitive, irregular, stereotyped movements or vocalisations that are usually able to be consciously suppressed and are most pronounced when relaxed. (link)
Incorrect
Tics are repetitive, irregular, stereotyped movements or vocalisations that are usually able to be consciously suppressed and are most pronounced when relaxed. (link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
Rhythmical continuous pendular movements of variable amplitude, but fixed frequency without movement free intervals is most likely
Correct
Tremor typically has rhythmical continuous pendular movements of variable amplitude, but fixed frequency with no movement free intervals. (link)
Incorrect
Tremor typically has rhythmical continuous pendular movements of variable amplitude, but fixed frequency with no movement free intervals. (link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
A patient has a high frequency tremor that only involves the arms. It is most likely to be
Correct
Physiological tremor is the only high frequency tremor of the choices given. It is postural and only affects the arms. Parkinsonian tremor is a low frequency tremor that affects the arms to a greater extent than the legs and face. Cerebellar tremor is also low frequency and affects the arms and trunk, more than the legs. Essential tremor is a low frequency tremor that affects the arms more than the head and legs. Neuropathic tremor is also low frequency and difficult to differentiate from essential tremor. (link)
Incorrect
Physiological tremor is the only high frequency tremor of the choices given. It is postural and only affects the arms. Parkinsonian tremor is a low frequency tremor that affects the arms to a greater extent than the legs and face. Cerebellar tremor is also low frequency and affects the arms and trunk, more than the legs. Essential tremor is a low frequency tremor that affects the arms more than the head and legs. Neuropathic tremor is also low frequency and difficult to differentiate from essential tremor. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
A patient has a low frequency tremor that involves the arms greater than the legs and face and is present at rest. Which one of the following is it most likely to be?
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding dysphasia is incorrect?
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
Which one of the following statements about dysphasia is incorrect?
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the types of dementia is incorrect?
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding the criteria for dementia is incorrect?
Correct
The MMSE score is usually < 24. Scores of 24-28 indicate early cognitive impairment. The criteria for the diagnosis of dementia include cognitive loss in two or more domains (memory, language, calculations, orientation, judgment), with the loss must be of sufficient severity to cause disability and a MMSE < 24. (link)
Incorrect
The MMSE score is usually < 24. Scores of 24-28 indicate early cognitive impairment. The criteria for the diagnosis of dementia include cognitive loss in two or more domains (memory, language, calculations, orientation, judgment), with the loss must be of sufficient severity to cause disability and a MMSE < 24. (link)
Neurological examination Part 4
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on neurological examination. It is suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions in this quiz are derived from the content of the Assessment of vision, Cerebellar function and Assessment and management of vertigo pages, so revising these pages is advised before taking the quiz.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsA child should be able to move towards light and fixate by
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsComplete following movements in all directions should be possible in a child by
Correct
Normal visual development in children is characterised by the presence of doll’s-eye movements at birth and development of conjugate eye movements soon after birth. By 2 weeks of age the eyes should move toward light and fixate but complete following movements in all directions does not occur until approximately 4 months of age. Acoustically elicited eye movements appear by 5 months of age and depth perception, stable binocular alignment and the capacity for nystagmus appear by 24 months of age. (link)
Incorrect
Normal visual development in children is characterised by the presence of doll’s-eye movements at birth and development of conjugate eye movements soon after birth. By 2 weeks of age the eyes should move toward light and fixate but complete following movements in all directions does not occur until approximately 4 months of age. Acoustically elicited eye movements appear by 5 months of age and depth perception, stable binocular alignment and the capacity for nystagmus appear by 24 months of age. (link)
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Optic disk lesions are the most likely to cause an ipsilateral central scotoma as demonstrated. A partial optic nerve lesion usually causes a ipsilateral unilateral nasal or temporal field defect, although a lesion in the centre of the L optic nerve (very uncommon) could cause this type of defect. Right optic radiation or occipital lobe lesions cause a left sided homonymous hemianopia. (link)
Incorrect
Optic disk lesions are the most likely to cause an ipsilateral central scotoma as demonstrated. A partial optic nerve lesion usually causes a ipsilateral unilateral nasal or temporal field defect, although a lesion in the centre of the L optic nerve (very uncommon) could cause this type of defect. Right optic radiation or occipital lobe lesions cause a left sided homonymous hemianopia. (link)
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Optic disk lesions are more likely to cause an ipsilateral central scotoma, than complete unilateral blindness as demonstrated. A complete optic nerve lesions is the most likely cause of this type of defect. Left optic radiation or occipital lobe lesions cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia. (link)
Incorrect
Optic disk lesions are more likely to cause an ipsilateral central scotoma, than complete unilateral blindness as demonstrated. A complete optic nerve lesions is the most likely cause of this type of defect. Left optic radiation or occipital lobe lesions cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia. (link)
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsCorrect
A right sided temporal aspect optic nerve lesion causes a right nasal hemianopia. A right sided optic tract lesion would cause a left sided homonymous hemianopia. An occipital lobe lesion would cause a homonymous hemianopia and a left optic radiation lesion would cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia, not bitemporal, if complete. (link)
Incorrect
A right sided temporal aspect optic nerve lesion causes a right nasal hemianopia. A right sided optic tract lesion would cause a left sided homonymous hemianopia. An occipital lobe lesion would cause a homonymous hemianopia and a left optic radiation lesion would cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia, not bitemporal, if complete. (link)
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Optic chiasmal lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia as demonstrated. Bilateral temporal partial optic nerve lesions would cause binasal hemianopia. Bilateral occipital lobe lesions cause complete blindness. A left optic radiation lesion would cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia, not bitemporal, if complete. (link)
Incorrect
Optic chiasmal lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia as demonstrated. Bilateral temporal partial optic nerve lesions would cause binasal hemianopia. Bilateral occipital lobe lesions cause complete blindness. A left optic radiation lesion would cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia, not bitemporal, if complete. (link)
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Optic tract lesions tend to give complete homonymous hemianopia on the opposite side of the lesion. A right optic radiation lesion would cause a left sided (not right sided) hemianopia if complete. Optic chiasmal lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia and bilateral occipital lobe lesions cause complete blindness.(link)
Incorrect
Optic tract lesions tend to give complete homonymous hemianopia on the opposite side of the lesion. A right optic radiation lesion would cause a left sided (not right sided) hemianopia if complete. Optic chiasmal lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia and bilateral occipital lobe lesions cause complete blindness.(link)
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsCorrect
The defect is most likely due to a left occipital cortex lesion. Macular sparing may be present with lesions at this location as the blood supply of the occipital pole of the visual cortex can be from the middle cerebral artery instead of the posterior cerebral artery.(link)
Incorrect
The defect is most likely due to a left occipital cortex lesion. Macular sparing may be present with lesions at this location as the blood supply of the occipital pole of the visual cortex can be from the middle cerebral artery instead of the posterior cerebral artery.(link)
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Athough lower quadrantanopia is traditionally stated as being due to a parietal lobe lesion affecting the optic radiation, about 80% of cases are due to occipital lobe lesions.(link)
Incorrect
Athough lower quadrantanopia is traditionally stated as being due to a parietal lobe lesion affecting the optic radiation, about 80% of cases are due to occipital lobe lesions.(link)
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Athough upper quadrantanopia is traditionally stated as being due to a temporal lobe lesion affecting the optic radiation, about 80% of cases are due to occipital lobe lesions. (link)
Incorrect
Athough upper quadrantanopia is traditionally stated as being due to a temporal lobe lesion affecting the optic radiation, about 80% of cases are due to occipital lobe lesions. (link)
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements regarding nystagmus is incorrect?
Correct
Pendular nystagmus is usually congenital, downbeat nystagmus is acquired and associated with lesions around the foramen magnum. As eye movements have equal speed in pendular nystagmus (unlike the fast – slow speed of jerky nystagmus) it can be difficult to differentiate from ocular clonus. (link)
Incorrect
Pendular nystagmus is usually congenital, downbeat nystagmus is acquired and associated with lesions around the foramen magnum. As eye movements have equal speed in pendular nystagmus (unlike the fast – slow speed of jerky nystagmus) it can be difficult to differentiate from ocular clonus. (link)
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsNystagmus to the right is most likely caused by a
Correct
Either right sided vestibular or cerebellar lesions can cause nystagmus to the right, however vestibular lesions are more common than cerebellar lesions in ED practice particularly if unilateral. (link)
Incorrect
Either right sided vestibular or cerebellar lesions can cause nystagmus to the right, however vestibular lesions are more common than cerebellar lesions in ED practice particularly if unilateral. (link)
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements regarding nystagmus is incorrect?
Correct
Periodic alternating nystagmus is associated with posterior fossa lesions. Pendular nystagmus is usually congenital or associated with severe visual impairment. (link)
Incorrect
Periodic alternating nystagmus is associated with posterior fossa lesions. Pendular nystagmus is usually congenital or associated with severe visual impairment. (link)
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsNystagmus due to a central cause usually has all of the following features except
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsNystagmus from a peripheral cause usually has all of the following features except
Correct
There is a 2- 20 second latency from stimulus (e.g. Nylen-Barany (Hallpike) manoeuvre) to the onset of nystagmus in peripheral lesions, in contrast to central lesions that have an immediate onset of nystagmus. (link)
Incorrect
There is a 2- 20 second latency from stimulus (e.g. Nylen-Barany (Hallpike) manoeuvre) to the onset of nystagmus in peripheral lesions, in contrast to central lesions that have an immediate onset of nystagmus. (link)
Neurological examination Part 5
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on neurological examination. It is suitable for people preparing for the ACEM Fellowship examination or those just interested in refining their clinical skills. The questions in this quiz are on the dermatomes of the body and are derived from the Dermatomes of the body page, so revising this page is advised before taking the quiz.
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Random clinical examination quiz
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This is a 15 question MCQ quiz on clinical examination. There are no new questions in this quiz – the questions are randomly selected from the existing clinical examination and updates question banks, hence the quiz will be different each time it is run. Because of this, it is best used as a revision aid. We strongly advise you not to take this quiz until after you have completed all the other clinical examination and update quizzes.
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